Weird regional words and wonderful regional words (from AMER

PooPoo2U Says:

Aug 31, 2009 - and here you go again spreading your ignorance. explain to me how "pop" is more likely the original term considering that the name soda comes from the fact that the primary ingredient is (duh duh-duh!) SODA WATER!

dan892k7 Says:

Aug 31, 2009 - No because America is largely made up of cities, and as I'm sure you are aware as a linguistics student, cities have a tendancy to merge accents together. Whereas Britain is mostly made of villages and towns. Not only that, but British Americans generally came from around the same place - the South West of England. Meaning, at least the English influence on your language is restricted. Most the Irish were from northern Ireland as well, and those are your two main influences. Dan

dan892k7 Says:

Aug 31, 2009 - Carbonated water was invented in the town I currently live (wikipedia just informed me, how nice ^_^ ), Leeds. And it was known as carbonated water, not soda water. And it was dubbed as 'pop'. America had already split off from Britain by this point, and due to tension between us, you never had it until 1806, when Benjamin Silliman (sillyman!? Haha!) invented it (though we already had it :-p) in Yale. So there you go mister Linguistics :-) Dan

dan892k7 Says:

Aug 31, 2009 - Oh and something that needs to be added to the accents debate. For thousands of years we didn't have transport, therefore the accents of each town became pretty much isolated. However, from its conception America had trains, and after only a few decades you had cars - invented by Karl Benz, NOT as commonly though Henry Ford ;-). And so the accents didn't ever get much chance to ferment, if you will. Whereas in England they have. Therefore making perfect logical sense. Dan

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - hahaha, wrong again buddy. the term "soda" dates back to 1558 to my recollection, while robert southey didn't coin the term "pop" until 1812, and even when he did coin it, check out the context: "A new manufactory of a nectar, between soda-water and ginger-beer, and called pop, because pop goes the cork when it is drawn." so obviously soda was first, because he mentions it in the same statement where he first coins the term "pop". so there you go mr. idiot

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - ah, you must have me there, right? well let's do some math: according to census, 20.781% of americans DON'T live in urban areas, and that's a lax number, but we'll use it anyway. what's 20.781% of 307 million? 63,797, 670. why is this significant you ask? because that rural 20 percent of america is still 2 and a half MILLION more people than are in the entire united kingdom (northern ireland included).

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - lol, from it's conception we had trains eh? well, we were recognized as a country in 1783, and we didn't have a national railway system until 1869, 103 years later. and no one said henry ford invented the car dumbass, everyone knows he devised the first affordable automobile. way to try to throw in some irrelevant tripe for extra points. benz didn't even invent the car, he invented the MODERN car. steam powered automobiles have be in existence since at least around the 1750s.

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - How does the word soda date back to 1558 if it wasn't even invented then? Dandelion and Burdock was the first ever fizzy drink, and it was dubbed 'pop' due to the bubbles inside it. Did you just call me mr. idiot? Are you 5 years old? There are 72 million people in the UK, not 60 million. Even people living in the rural US have only settled there quite recently, and therefore their accents haven't diverged. Also, there is fast connections to cities even from there. Dan

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - Well, most Americans tend to say the model T was the first car, and yes, that's absolute bollocks. You didn't have a railway until 1869? I thought you'd have got them the same time as us pretty much and we first got them in the mid 1820s. Even so, you've had trains since only 100 years after your conception as a country. Dan

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - actually, it was termed "pop" due to the fact that the cork made a popping sound when uncorked. why would you call it pop for being fizzy? and your numbers are quite off there. according to your very own government, there's 61.4 million people in the UK, not 72. and the people in the rural US have been there for quite some time. have you ever even been to america? for hundreds of miles in some places that's all you can find!

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - and yes, i did call you mister idiot. where is your room to talk when you yourself said "So there you go mister Linguistics :-)" quite a case of the pot calling the kettle black.

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - NO! The first American to take the English word 'pop', and use it in advertising was Robert Southey, but he took the phrase from the English usage, which has been used for centuries now. We never even called it soda water like you, it's carbonated water for us, so it makes no logical sense that we'd call it soda! It was called pop, because it was aimed at upper class children, and it was meant to signify the bubbles popping at the top. Dan

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - Yes but, "mister linguistics" is an ironic statement, praying on the fact that I had outwitted your remark. And then you replied with a childish, and not even offensive, "mister idiot". It just goes against all conventions of how to insulting someone ;-) Dan

PooPoo2U Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - haha, way to do your research. robert southey couldn't have been the first american to do anything: he was british! type "history and timeline of soft drinks" on google, and you'll see, soda was, in fact, first.

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 1, 2009 - Yes, but he was the first to advertise it as pop in the US ;-). He was British, but as many companies, he operated trans-atlantic.

protosswannabe Says:

Sep 20, 2009 - Well American dialects have such a great diversity also due to all the influences from established immigrant communities from Italy, Latin America, eastern Europe, and West African slaves.....in short, non-Anglophone countries have all left their influences on American accents and dialects so there is a lot of divergence from anything purely Anglo-Hiberno-Scots influenced.

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 20, 2009 - Have you ever been to the uk? Every town, village, hamlet, and city have their own distinctive accent. If someone from Harlepool was to speak to me, I'd know he's from Hartlepool, or if someone from Carlisle were to speak to me, I'd know he's from Carlisle - just from the accents. You can't do that in America, you can do it in the major cities where it's diverse, but not throughout the rest of the country where you have vast swades of land with the same accent. Dan

protosswannabe Says:

Sep 24, 2009 - You're certainly right that there are more accents *per square mile* in the UK, but American English still isn't as uniform as you make it out to be, and not just in big cities. There are many areas that have been very isolated from outside contact, particularly in the Appalachian mountains and fishing villages in the Chesapeake Bay, and as a result they have very distinct ways of speaking.

protosswannabe Says:

Sep 24, 2009 - Also I think you might be exaggerating the differences between different English accents. Most English people from other parts of the country themselves don't even know how to make hairsplitting distinctions between these accents of neighboring villages as you claim to be able to.

dan892k7 Says:

Sep 24, 2009 - No you can, I'm from Darlington, and I sound nothing like anyone from Durham, or Middlesbrough (granted these are towns, not villages), and they're only 10 miles away from me. Not only that, but places like Newcastle, just 30 miles away, have more than one distinct accent. Newcastle has 3 main accents in one town, most notably the 'geordie' accent. Of course here I am not referring to minority accents. And then there's Leeds and Bradford, 4 miles apart, and yet a HUGE accent difference! Dan

protosswannabe Says:

Sep 24, 2009 - Well your ears are certainly much more attuned to subtle differences between English voices, while mine are much more attuned to differences between American voices. You may swear up and down that two accents are completely different that sound the same to me, while I may think likewise about accents here that you may not be able to tell the difference between. It's also a matter of perspective and familiarity with deviations from norms that we're used to.

protosswannabe Says:

Sep 24, 2009 - In another video a very talented voice talent from Scotland actually said that he couldn't tell the difference between Hawaiian pidgin and General American. Those two dialects are as different to us Americans as Spanish is to French. I think the fellow's ears simply just weren't attuned to notice the vast differences. Similarly I have a hard time telling the difference between all the accents from the north of England since they all sound semi-Scottish to me. Perspective, man, perspective.

Kelsie154 Says:

Nov 5, 2009 - wow i've never heard anyone call a rubberband a gumband :/ that's honestly very funny sounding. and i've always heard the word jambalaya but i never knew what it meant. thanks video. ha antigogglin? wtf. ha. wouldn't it just be simpler to say crooked? although i guess that's no different than ohioans saying pop instead of soda or hair doodles instead of hair ties. you know the thing you use to put your hair into a ponytail?

NyYankees1985 Says:

Nov 6, 2009 - i hate them jew bastards

tonylachief Says:

Nov 7, 2009 - I've lived in different areas of the US, and the MOST varied nonstandard American English is the African American vernacular as spoken in Atlanta. I had to live there several years before I started understanding.