First order homegenous equations

Huetnak Says:

Sep 1, 2008 - Hey! thanks for these videos mate, really helpful. im going to university in a few weeks so i need to catch up on this, as im studying electrical and electronic engineering. any chance you could make the reviews of the maths a bit slower and add in the description practical uses for the maths. that would be heroic. 3 thanks again.

ltkenbo Says:

Sep 8, 2008 - Awesome! Your great at explaining all this! wish you were my teacher!:-)

redstahr Says:

Sep 17, 2008 - THANK YOU!!!!! you have no idea how much this helps!

HelkaSilck Says:

Nov 13, 2008 - Does the term "Homogenous" take on a different meaning when discussing 2nd order linear differential equations? In this video, you state that homogenous means that you can re-write it as a function in terms of (y/x), but in one of the "2nd order linear homogenous differential equation" videos, you explain that homogenous means that the funtion is equal to zero... Am I misunderstanding this? Thanks! Great videos!

glykoulis Says:

Feb 19, 2009 - great videos indead! homogenous in greek means that they have the same parents somehow.. homo=same genous=bread or genus so it's like having a family of different functions. in case of milk it is about chemistry and has the meaning that every spot in the milk seems to be the same. in physics it is also used in case of magnets to declare that their magnetic field has the same intense allover. finally in greek it is used to declare people coming from the same country,

CSULALS1 Says:

Feb 23, 2009 - excellent video. couldn't be learned any easier. kudos!!

aceofdragons Says:

Mar 23, 2009 - No, you are not. The meaning of the word "homogeneous" varies in meaning when studying different classes of differential equations.

soulflyfgm Says:

Apr 23, 2009 - Keep it up!!

mess1n Says:

May 12, 2009 - homogeneous means that as the function y goes to 0, the sum goes to 0

dragonslight030192 Says:

May 14, 2009 - THANKS!! YOU ARE AWSOME!! LOVE YOU!

Ganjin88 Says:

May 22, 2009 - Yea i see what you are saying but intensity of the magnetic field weakens as you move away from the source because the magnetic field will produce a weaker force on particles that are very distant away from the source. But good analysis though.

startvideo2007 Says:

Jul 14, 2009 - HOMO GENIUS !!!!! lolz

macrossvr Says:

Jul 22, 2009 - You 're awsome

glykoulis Says:

Aug 27, 2009 - I am afraid that homogenous magnetic fields have the same intense all over. It does not relate to the distance. Homogenous magnetic fields exist between two magnetic plates as far as I remember. : )

codenamecody Says:

Oct 1, 2009 - thanks these help a lot, my diffy Q teacher only speaks engrish

icafemoto Says:

Oct 13, 2009 - Woudn't the solution be y=ln(x)+xc ? not y=ln(x)+c ? he forgot to multiply the c by x when he substituted for v? or..?

WildChildftw Says:

Oct 21, 2009 - Anything times a arbitrary constant is just another constant.

icafemoto Says:

Oct 21, 2009 - Hey, you're a dumbass. x is not a constant. x is a variable. x is not arbitrary. I'm right, this kid is wrong. Answer should be y=ln(x)+xc. gg chump cake, no re.

WildChildftw Says:

Oct 22, 2009 - Thank you good sir. However your logic is horribly wrong. For all real numbers x and C1, xC1=C2, where C2 is a real number. Mathematicians don't always bother writing superscripts for all their constants when in fact they are arbitrary.

icafemoto Says:

Oct 22, 2009 - it's pointless arguing with people with lower IQ than me because ur obviously wrong and have no idea what you're talking about. My math teacher and any math teacher would mark just +c wrong. it needs to include the xc because c is suppose to be a fucking constant. you can't have variables in a constant. It comes down to math orthodox. If he was multiplying by a number like 5 to both sides, then yes u would be right, it wouldnt be 5c, it could just be C.

icafemoto Says:

Oct 22, 2009 - and i know' you're not l337 at math cuz ur watching this fucking math tutorial video, ur just a stupid preteen trying to act smart. I'm the only genius here.

WildChildftw Says:

Oct 26, 2009 - Haha, I am having a hard time deciding if you are trolling or not. What you are saying there is a logical fail. What if the x are given to be a 5? Or any other real number. Then voila, just a constant. And btw, I study math at the university.

tuxb0x Says:

Oct 30, 2009 - I'm not too keen on Khan's description of homogeneous. I found the following description more intuitive. A function f(x,y) is homogeneous if f(x,y)=f(tx,ty). Thus, dividing the parameters of f(x,y) by x is sane and yields f(1,v) where v = y/x and y'=v+xv'. When substituted into the original dy/dx = f(x,y) equation yields v + xv' = f(1,v); a separable diff. equation. Thanks to sosmath for that explanation. Keep up the good work Khan!

tuxb0x Says:

Oct 30, 2009 - Khan corrects the solution at 6:42. You are right, the solution should be y=xln|x|+xc

gamr789 Says:

Nov 5, 2009 - please finish watching the video before commenting.. because he realises his mistake and correct it.. and yes.. xC cannot become just C because... C is an inmovable constant for that ecuation while.. X can take different values and the equation will hold right.. WildChildftw doesn´t know math or at list.. the antiderivatives..